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Welcome to the PROFESSIONAL UPDATES - A FAMILY OF PROFESSIONALS

Vision of Group: Knowledge Sharing is the Learning, and innate to our human nature of wanting to connect and collaborate with others.

Welcome to the PROFESSIONAL UPDATES - A FAMILY OF PROFESSIONALS

Vision of Group: Knowledge Sharing is the Learning, and innate to our human nature of wanting to connect and collaborate with others.

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RBI Rates

Bank Rate
9.0%
Repo Rate
8.0%
Reverse Repo Rate
7.0%
Marginal Standing Facility Rate
9.0%
CRR
4.0%
SLR
23.0%
RBI EXCHANGE RATES (Base currency: INR)
1USD
58.8415
1 EURO
80.0315
100Japan YEN
57.8500
1 Pound Sterling
98.4065
GOVERNMENT SECURITY MARKET *cutoff at the last auction
6.90 GS 2019
8.0907%
91 day T-Bills*
8.6456%
182 day T-Bills*
8.7050%
364 day T-Bills*
8.8857%

Stock Data

BSE Sensex (29.05.14)
24234.15 (-321.94)
NSE Nifty (29.05.14)
7235.65 (-94.00)
Dow Jones (28.05.14)
16633.18 (-42.32)
Nikkei-225 (28.05.14)
14670.95 (34.43)

Stock Data

BSE Sensex (28.05.14)
24556.09 (6.58)
NSE Nifty (28.05.14)
7329.65 (11.65)
Dow Jones (27.05.14)
16675.50 (69.23)
Nikkei-225 (27.05.14)
14636.52 (34.00)

Crystallization of Inoperative Foreign Currency Deposits

RBI/2013-14/616 A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No.136


Crystallization of Inoperative Foreign Currency Deposits

The Reserve Bank of India, in exercise of the powers conferred by subsections (1) and (5) of Section 26(A) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (10 of 1949) has formulated the Reserve Bank (Depositor Education and Awareness Fund) Scheme, 2014. This Fund will be credited with the credit balances of any account in India with a banking company which has not been operated for a period of ten years or any deposit or any amount remaining unclaimed for more than ten years within a period of three months from the expiry of ten years.

2. With the objective of aligning the instructions in respect of foreign currency accounts with the above scheme, Reserve Bank of India has issued Foreign Exchange Management (Crystallization of Inoperative Foreign Currency Deposits) Regulations, 2014 vide Notification No. FEMA 10A/2014-RB dated March 21, 2014 under Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 relating to inoperative foreign currency deposits.

3. Accordingly, Authorised Dealer banks shall crystallise, that is, convert the credit balances in any inoperative foreign currency denominated deposit into Indian Rupee, in the manner indicated below:

(i) In case a foreign currency denominated deposit with a fixed maturity date remains inoperative for a period of three years from the date of maturity of the deposit, at the end of the third year, the authorised bank shall convert the balances lying in the foreign currency denominated deposit into Indian Rupee at the exchange rate prevailing as on that date. Thereafter, the depositor shall be entitled to claim either the said Indian Rupee proceeds and interest thereon, if any, or the  foreign currency equivalent (calculated at the rate prevalent as on the date of payment) of the Indian Rupee proceeds of  the original deposit and interest, if any, on such Indian Rupee proceeds.

(ii) In case of foreign currency denominated deposit with no fixed maturity period, if the deposit remains inoperative for a period of three years (debit of bank charges not to be reckoned as operation), the authorised bank shall, after giving a three month notice to the depositor at his last known address as available with it, convert the deposit from the foreign currency in which it is denominated to Indian Rupee at the end of the notice period at the prevailing exchange rate. Thereafter, the depositor shall be entitled to claim either the said Indian Rupee proceeds and interest thereon, if any, or the  foreign currency equivalent (calculated at the rate prevalent as on the date of payment) of the Indian Rupee proceeds of  the original deposit and interest, if any, on such Indian Rupee proceeds. 

4. AD Category- I banks may bring the contents of the circular to the notice of their constituents concerned.

5. The directions contained in this circular have been issued under Sections 10(4) and 11(1) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (42 of 1999) and is without prejudice to permissions / approvals, if any, required under any other law. 
Yours faithfully



Rudra Narayan Kar
 Chief General Manager-in-Charge

Formation of new State of Telangana – Assignment of SLBC Convenorship

RBI/2013-14/617 RPCD.CO.LBS.No.13027/02.01.001/2013-14

May 28, 2014

The Chairman & Managing Director
All SLBC Convenor banks

Dear Sir/Madam,

Formation of new State of Telangana – Assignment of SLBC Convenorship

As per The Gazette of India Notification No. 6 of 2014 dated March 1, 2014, the 29th State of the country viz. Telangana has been formed and the appointed day has been fixed as June 2, 2014.

2. It has been decided to assign the SLBC convenorship of Telangana State to State Bank of Hyderabad. The SLBC responsibility for the State of Andhra Pradesh (after carving out Telangana) has been retained with Andhra Bank.

3. There is no change in the SLBC responsibilities of the other States.

Yours faithfully,

(A.Udgata)
Principal Chief General Manager

RBI Rates

Bank Rate
9.0%
Repo Rate
8.0%
Reverse Repo Rate
7.0%
Marginal Standing Facility Rate
9.0%
CRR
4.0%
SLR
23.0%
RBI EXCHANGE RATES (Base currency: INR)
1USD
59.0770
1 EURO
80.5300
100Japan YEN
57.9800
1 Pound Sterling
99.2021
GOVERNMENT SECURITY MARKET *cutoff at the last auction
6.90 GS 2019
8.0907%
91 day T-Bills*
8.6456%
182 day T-Bills*
8.7050%
364 day T-Bills*
8.8857%

Do you know


  • Arunachal Pradesh is home to 601 species of orchids or 52 % of the species of orchids known in India;
  • Arunachal Pradesh, with an area of 83,743 sq km, is the largest state in the North East;
  • The state’s hydropower potential is currently estimated at 57,000 MW or approximately 26 % of India’s current power generating capacity;
  • Itanagar, Naharlagun, Tawang, Rupa, Bomdila, Bhalukpong, Seppa, Ziro and Daporijo are some of the major towns;
  • Brahmaputra is the major river flowing through the state. Other smaller rivers include Kameng, Subansiri, Lohit, Tirap and Siang;
  • Arunachal Pradesh is the largest of the seven sister states. It shares its border with the neighbouring countries of Bhutan in the west, China (Tibet) in the north and north-east and Myanmar in the east and southeast;
  • The most commonly spoken languages are Assamese, Bengali and Hindi. English is the official language and primary medium of education in the schools;
  • Arunachal Pradesh’s GSDP grew at a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of 16.6 % from 2004-05 to 2012-13;
  • According to the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), the cumulative FDI inflows from April 2000 to August 2013 amounted to US$ 78 million.
  • Hydropower is the major source of electricity generation in the state, contributing around 97.57 MW of installed capacity, followed by 103.94 MW of renewable energy resources and 47.93 MW of thermal power;
  • Arunachal Pradesh had 107 telephone exchanges and 342,113 subscribers of Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL).


WHISTLE BLOWER POLICY / VIGIL MECHANISM

WHISTLE BLOWER POLICY / VIGIL MECHANISM

{FOR .pdf FILE, CLICK HERE)

1. PREFACE

1.1. Section 177 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires every listed company and such class or classes of companies, as may be prescribed to establish a vigil mechanism for the directors and employees to report genuine concerns in such manner as may be prescribed. The Company has adopted a Code of Conduct for Directors and Senior Management Executives (“the Code”), which lays down the principles and standards that should govern the actions of the Company and its employees. Any actual or potential violation of the Code, howsoever insignificant or perceived as such, would be a matter of serious concern for the Company. Such a vigil mechanism shall provide for adequate safeguards against victimization of persons who use such mechanism and also make provision for direct access to the chairperson of the Audit Committee in appropriate or exceptional cases.

1.2. In the draft Rules under Companies Act’2013, among others, a company which has borrowed money from banks and public financial institutions in excess of Rs.50 crore needs to have a vigil mechanism.

1.3. Under these circumstances, Private Limited (“_________”), being a Private Limited Company proposes to establish a Whistle Blower Policy/ Vigil Mechanism and to formulate a policy for the same.


2. POLICY OBJECTIVES

2.1. The Company is committed to adhere to the highest standards of ethical, moral and legal conduct of business operations. To maintain these standards, the Company encourages its employees who have concerns about suspected misconduct to come forward and express these concerns without fear of punishment or unfair treatment. A Vigil (Whistle Blower) mechanism provides a channel to the employees and Directors to report to the management concerns about unethical behaviour, actual or suspected fraud or violation of the Codes of conduct or policy. The mechanism provides for adequate safeguards against victimization of employees and Directors to avail of the mechanism and also provide for direct access to the Chairman of the Audit Committee in exceptional cases.

2.2. This neither releases employees from their duty of confidentiality in the course of their work nor can it be used as a route for raising malicious or unfounded allegations against people in authority and / or colleagues in general.

3. SCOPE OF THE POLICY

3.1. This Policy covers malpractices and events which have taken place / suspected to have taken place, misuse or abuse of authority, fraud or suspected fraud, violation of company rules, manipulations, negligence causing danger to public health and safety, misappropriation of monies, and other matters or activity on account of which the interest of the Company is affected and formally reported by whistle blowers concerning its employees.

 4. DEFINITIONS

4.1. “Alleged wrongful conduct” shall mean violation of law, Infringement of Company’s rules, misappropriation of monies, actual or suspected fraud, substantial and specific danger to public health and safety or abuse of authority”.
         
4.2. “Audit Committee” means a Committee constituted by the Board of Directors of the Company in accordance guidelines of Companies Act, 2013.

4.3. “Board” means the Board of Directors of the Company.

4.4. “Company” means the.................................. Private Limited and all its offices.

4.5. “Code” means Code of Conduct for Directors and Senior Management Executives adopted by _____________ Private Limited.

  4.6. “Employee” means all the present employees and whole time Directors of the Company (Whether working in India or abroad).

4.7. “Protected Disclosure” means a concern raised by an employee or group of employees of the Company, through a written communication and made in good faith which discloses or demonstrates information about an unethical or improper activity under the title “SCOPE OF THE POLICY” with respect to the Company. It should be factual and not speculative or in the nature of an interpretation / conclusion and should contain as much specific information as possible to allow for proper assessment of the nature and extent of the concern.

4.8. “Subject” means a person or group of persons against or in relation to whom a Protected Disclosure is made or evidence gathered during the course of an investigation.

4.9. “Vigilance and Ethics Officer” means an officer appointed to receive protected disclosures from whistle blowers, maintaining records thereof, placing the same before the Audit Committee for its disposal and informing the Whistle Blower the result thereof.

4.10. “Whistle Blower” is an employee or group of employees who make a Protected Disclosure under this Policy and also referred in this policy as complainant.
         
5. ELIGIBILITY

All Employees of the Company are eligible to make Protected Disclosures under the Policy in relation to matters concerning the Company.
 
6. RECEIPT AND DISPOSAL OF PROTECTED DISCLOSURES.

6.1. All Protected Disclosures should be reported in writing by the complainant as soon as possible after the Whistle Blower becomes aware of the same so as to ensure a clear understanding of the issues raised and should either be typed or written in a legible handwriting in English or in Gujarati.

6.2. The Protected Disclosure should be submitted in a closed and secured envelope and should be super scribed as “Protected disclosure under the Whistle Blower policy”. Alternatively, the same can also be sent through email with the subject “Protected disclosure under the Whistle Blower policy”. If the complaint is not super scribed and closed as mentioned above, it will not be possible for the Audit Committee to protect the complainant and the protected disclosure will be dealt with as if a normal disclosure. In order to protect identity of the complainant, the Vigilance and Ethics Officer will not issue any acknowledgement to the complainants and they are advised neither to write their name / address on the envelope nor enter into any further correspondence with the Vigilance and Ethics Officer. The Vigilance and Ethics Officer shall assure that in case any further clarification is required he will get in touch with the complainant.

6.3. Anonymous / Pseudonymous disclosure shall not be entertained by the Vigilance and Ethics Officer.

6.4. The Protected Disclosure should be forwarded under a covering letter signed by the complainant. The Vigilance and Ethics Officer / Chairman of the Audit Committee/ CEO/ Chairman as the case may be, shall detach the covering letter bearing the identity of the Whistle Blower and process only the Protected Disclosure.

6.5. All Protected Disclosures should be addressed to the Vigilance and Ethics Officer of the Company or to the Chairman of the Audit Committee/ CEO/ Chairman in exceptional cases. The contact details of the Vigilance and Ethics Officer is as under:-

 Name and Address - ..................................................... (CFO)
 Email- .............................

6.6. Protected Disclosure against the Vigilance and Ethics Officer should be addressed to the Chairman of the Company and the Protected Disclosure against the Chairman/ CEO of the Company should be addressed to the Chairman of the Audit Committee.

The contact details of the Chairman, CEO and the Chairman of the Audit Committee are as under:

Name and Address of Chairman - .....................
Email- ........................

Name and Address of CEO - ......................
Email- ............................

Name and Address of the Chairman of the Audit  - ..............................
Email- .....................

6.7. On receipt of the protected disclosure the Vigilance and Ethics Officer / Chairman/ CEO / Chairman of the Audit Committee, as the case may be, shall make a record of the Protected Disclosure and also ascertain from the complainant whether he was the person who made the protected disclosure or not. He shall also carry out initial investigation either himself or by involving any other Officer of the Company or an outside agency before referring the matter to the Audit Committee of the Company for further appropriate investigation and needful action. The record will include:
 a) Brief facts;
b) Whether the same Protected Disclosure was raised previously by anyone, and if so, the outcome thereof;
c) Whether the same Protected Disclosure was raised previously on the same subject;
d) Details of actions taken by Vigilance and Ethics Officer / Chairman/ CEO for processing the complaint
e) Findings of the Audit Committee
f) The recommendations of the Audit Committee/ other action(s).

6.8 The Audit Committee, if deems fit, may call for further information or particulars from the complainant.
7. INVESTIGATION  

7.1. All protected disclosures under this policy will be recorded and thoroughly investigated. The Audit Committee may investigate and may at its discretion consider involving any other Officer of the Company and/ or an outside agency for the purpose of investigation.

7.2. The decision to conduct an investigation is by itself not an accusation and is to be treated as a neutral fact finding process. 

7.3. Subject(s) will normally be informed in writing of the allegations at the outset of a formal investigation and have opportunities for providing their inputs during the investigation.

7.4. Subject(s) shall have a duty to co-operate with the Audit Committee or any of the Officers appointed by it in this regard.

7.5. Subject(s) have a right to consult with a person or persons of their choice, other than the Vigilance and Ethics Officer / Investigators and/or members of the Audit Committee and/or the Whistle Blower.

7.6. Subject(s) have a responsibility not to interfere with the investigation. Evidence shall not be withheld, destroyed or tampered with and witness shall not be influenced, coached, threatened or intimidated by the subject(s).

7.7. Unless there are compelling reasons not to do so, subject(s) will be given the opportunity to respond to material findings contained in the investigation report. No allegation of wrong doing against a subject(s) shall be considered as maintainable unless there is good evidence in support of the allegation.

7.8. Subject(s) have a right to be informed of the outcome of the investigations. If allegations are not sustained, the Subject should be consulted as to whether public disclosure of the investigation results would be in the best interest of the Subject and the Company.

7.9. The investigation shall be completed normally within 90 days of the receipt of the protected disclosure and is extendable by such period as the Audit Committee deems fit.


8. DECISION AND REPORTING

8.1. If an investigation leads the Vigilance and Ethics Officer / Chairman of the Audit Committee to conclude that an improper or unethical act has been committed, the Vigilance and Ethics Officer / Chairman of the Audit Committee shall recommend to the management of the Company to take such disciplinary or corrective action as he may deem fit. It is clarified that any disciplinary or corrective action initiated against the Subject as a result of the findings of an investigation pursuant to this Policy shall adhere to the applicable personnel or staff conduct and disciplinary procedures.

8.2. The Vigilance and Ethics Officer shall submit a report to the Chairman of the Audit Committee on a regular basis about all Protected Disclosures referred to him/her since the last report together with the results of investigations, if any.

8.3. In case the Subject is the Chairman/CEO of the Company, the Chairman of the Audit Committee after examining the Protected Disclosure shall forward the protected disclosure to other members of the Audit Committee if deemed fit. The Audit Committee shall appropriately and expeditiously investigate the Protected Disclosure.
         
8.4. If the report of investigation is not to the satisfaction of the complainant, the complainant has the right to report the event to the appropriate legal or investigating agency.

8.5. A complainant who makes false allegations of unethical & improper practices or about alleged wrongful conduct of the subject to the Vigilance and Ethics Officer or the Audit Committee shall be subject to appropriate disciplinary action in accordance with the rules, procedures and policies of the Company.

 9. SECRECY / CONFIDENTIALITY

9.1. The complainant, Vigilance and Ethics Officer, Members of Audit Committee, the Subject and everybody involved in the process shall:
9.1.1. Maintain confidentiality of all matters under this Policy
9.1.2. Discuss only to the extent or with those persons as required under this policy for completing the process of investigations.
9.1.3. Not keep the papers unattended anywhere at any time
9.1.4. Keep the electronic mails / files under password.

10. PROTECTION

10.1. No unfair treatment will be meted out to a Whistle Blower by virtue of his/ her having reported a Protected Disclosure under this policy. The company, as a policy, condemns any kind of discrimination, harassment, victimization or any other unfair employment practice being adopted against Whistle Blowers. Complete protection will, therefore, be given to Whistle Blowers against any unfair practice like retaliation, threat or intimidation of termination / suspension of service, disciplinary action, transfer, demotion, refusal of promotion or the like including any direct or indirect use of authority to obstruct the Whistle Blower’s right to continue to perform his duties / functions including making further Protected Disclosure. The company will take steps to minimize difficulties, which the Whistle Blower may experience as a result of making the Protected Disclosure. Thus if the Whistle Blower is required to give evidence in criminal or disciplinary proceedings, the Company will arrange for the Whistle Blower to receive advice about the procedure, etc.

10.2. A Whistle Blower may report any violation of the above clause to the Chairman of the Audit Committee, who shall investigate into the same and recommend suitable action to the management.

10.3. The identity of the Whistle Blower shall be kept confidential to the extent possible and permitted under law. The identity of the complainant will not be revealed unless he himself has made either his details public or disclosed his identity to any other office or authority. In the event of the identity of the complainant being disclosed, the Audit Committee is authorized to initiate appropriate action as per extant regulations against the person or agency making such disclosure. The identity of the Whistle Blower, if known, shall remain confidential to those persons directly involved in applying this policy, unless the issue requires investigation by law enforcement agencies, in which case members of the organization are subject to subpoena.

10.4. Any other Employee assisting in the said investigation shall also be protected to the same extent as the Whistle Blower.

10.5. Provided however that the complainant before making a complaint has reasonable belief that an issue exists and he has acted in good faith. Any complaint not made in good faith as assessed as such by the Audit Committee shall be viewed seriously and the complainant shall be subject to disciplinary action as per the Rules / certified standing orders of the Company. This policy does not protect an employee from an adverse action taken independent of his disclosure of unethical and improper practice etc. unrelated to a disclosure made pursuant to this policy.

11. ACCESS TO CHAIRMAN OF THE AUDIT COMMITTEE

11.1. The Whistle Blower shall have right to access Chairman of the Audit Committee directly in exceptional cases and the Chairman of the Audit Committee is authorized to prescribe suitable directions in this regard.

12. COMMUNICATION

12.1. A whistle Blower policy cannot be effective unless it is properly communicated to employees. Employees shall be informed through by publishing in notice board and the website of the company.

13. RETENTION OF DOCUMENTS  

13.1. All Protected disclosures in writing or documented along with the results of Investigation relating thereto, shall be retained by the Company for a period of 7 (seven) years or such other period as specified by any other law in force, whichever is more.

14. ADMINISTRATION AND REVIEW OF THE POLICY

14.1. The Chief Financial Officer shall be responsible for the administration, interpretation, application and review of this policy. The Chief Financial Officer also shall be empowered to bring about necessary changes to this Policy, if required at any stage with the concurrence of the Audit Committee.

15. AMENDMENT

15.1. The Company reserves its right to amend or modify this Policy in whole or in part, at any time without assigning any reason whatsoever. However, no such amendment or modification will be binding on the Employees and Directors unless the same is notified to them in writing

Do you know

  • India is the 9th largest civil aviation market in the world;
  • India ranks 4th (after US, China and Japan) in domestic passenger volumes (116.3 million);
  • India’s civil aviation market is set to become the world’s 3rd (after US and China) largest by 2020;
  • Delhi Passenger traffic handled in FY 2012: 35.9 million; FY 2013: 34.37 million;
  • Mumbai Passenger traffic handled in FY 2012: 30.74 million; FY 2013: 30.21 million;
  • International passenger traffic posted a CAGR of 9.8 per cent over FY06-13 and is set to touch 60 million by FY 2017;
  • During April – September 2013, Domestic and International passenger traffic and increased by 6.6 % and 12% respectively compared to similar period in the previous year;
  • Private sector investment is expected to increase to USD9.3 billion during the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-17) from USD5.5 billion in the previous plan;
  • The share of travel & tourism in India’s GDP stood at 6.6 per cent in 2013; it is expected to reach 6.8 per cent in 2014 and is expected to be 6.9 per cent per annum by 2023;


TITLE: Important principles of law on taxation of discretionary & specific trusts explained CASE: CWT vs. Estate of Late HMM Vikramsinghji of Gondal (Supreme Court)

TITLE:  Important principles of law on taxation of discretionary & specific trusts explained
CASE:  CWT vs. Estate of Late HMM Vikramsinghji of Gondal (Supreme Court)      
The ex-Ruler of Gondal Shri Vikramsinhji executed three deeds of settlements (trust deeds) in the USA & UK. These trusts were created for the benefit of (a) the Settlor, (b) the children and remoter issue for the time being in existence of the Settlor and (c) any person for the time being in existence who is the wife or widow of the Settlor or the wife or widow or husband or widower of any of them, the children and remoter issue of the Settlor. During his life time, the settlor, Shri Vikramsinhji, was including the whole of the income arising from these trusts in his returns of income. The said income was also included in the two returns filed by his son Jyotendrasinhiji for the AY 1970-71. Thereafter, the assessee took the stand that the income from these trusts is not includible in his income. Jyotendrasinhiji also took the stand that inclusion of the said income in the returns submitted by his father for the AYs 1964-65 to 1969-70 and by himself for the assessment year 1970-71 was under a mistake.
Clause 3 of the deeds of settlement executed in U.K. leaves at the discretion of the trustees to disburse benefits to the beneficiaries. The endorsement made in the returns, as noted above, shows that income was retained by the trustees and not disbursed. The Tribunal while considering clause 3(2) and Clause 4 of the U.K. Trust Deeds observed that if the trusts were really intended to be discretionary, the trustees had a duty cast on them to ascertain the relative needs and personal circumstances of all the beneficiaries and to allocate the income of the trusts, among them from time to time, according to the objects of the trusts, however, the tell tale facts bring out the intention of the settlor to treat the trust property as his own.
The settlor and after his death his son have been showing the income of foreign trusts in the returns of income filed from time to time. Had the trust deeds been really understood by the trustees and the beneficiaries as discretionary by virtue of the operation of clause 3, one would have expected the state of affairs to have been different. Consequently, the Tribunal held that due to failure on the part of the Maharaja to appoint discretion exercisers as per clause 3(2), clause 4 has become operative and the U.K. trusts have to be held to be specific trusts.
The High court did not agree with the Tribunal’s view and held that on interpretation of the relevant clauses of the deeds of settlement executed in U.K., character of the trusts was discretionary and not specific.
On appeal by the department to the Supreme Court HELD dismissing the appeal:
“A discretionary trust is one which gives a beneficiary no right to any part of the income of the trust property, but vests in the trustees a discretionary power to pay him, or apply for his benefit, such part of the income as they think fit.
The trustees must exercise their discretion as and when the income becomes available, but if they fail to distribute in due time, the power is not extinguished so that they can distribute later. They have no power to bind themselves for the future.
The beneficiary thus has no more than a hope that the discretion will be exercised in his favour. Having regard to the above legal position about the discretionary trust which is also applied by by this Court in the earlier judgment and the fact that the income has been retained and not disbursed to the beneficiaries, the view taken by the High Court cannot be said to be legally flawed. Merely because the Settlor and after his death, his son did not exercise their power to appoint the discretion exercisers, the character of the subject trusts does not get altered. The two U.K. trusts continued to be ‘discretionary trust’ for the subject assessment years.

The High Court has taken a correct view that the value of the assets cannot be assessed on the estate of the deceased Settlor (Snell’s Principles of Equity, 28th Edition, Page 138 followed)”

Stock Data

BSE Sensex (27.05.14)
24549.51 (-167.37)
NSE Nifty (27.05.14)
7318.00 (-41.05)
Dow Jones (23.05.14)
16606.27 (63.19)
Nikkei-225 (26.05.14)
14602.52 (140.35)